A pastor I respect just posted an article on facebook questioning whether Richard Dawkins’ atheism is genuine. (My answer: of course it is.)
He followed it up by saying:
This confirms my Bible-based conviction that there are no genuine atheists; only God-haters. See Romans 1:18-32.
I really, really wanted to respond by saying:
See Psalm 53:1. This confirms my Bible-based conviction that there are no genuine God-haters; only atheists.
The relevant portion of the Romans 1 passage says this:
For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men who suppress the truth in unrighteousness, because that which is known about God is evident within them; for God made it evident to them. For since the creation of the world His invisible attributes, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly seen, being understood through what has been made, so that they are without excuse. For even though they knew God, they did not honor Him as God or give thanks, but they became futile in their speculations, and their foolish heart was darkened.
and Psalm 53:1 says this,
The fool says in his heart, “There is no God.”
So, what is the resolution of these two apparently contradictory passages?
And while we’re at it, do these passages mean that we should accuse atheists of being either fools or liars? That seems wrong to me. I’d like to grant people more respect than that, but how does that fit with these two passages?
Maybe I’ll write up my answer later, but for now I’ll leave all this out there for you all to mull over.